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You can prove to a JW that the word must be there from their own Kingdom Interlinear Translation though. John - Thomas called Jesus 'God' with a big 'G'. A JW will say Thomas simply said this out of shock or some other lame excuse. Even if this were the case, Jesus never corrected the mistake. He actually confirmed that Thomas was correct. Acts - Stephen prayed to Jesus. Only God can be prayed to. For example, they properly translated the word in Acts , Acts , Acts , Acts , Romans , and 2 Tim.
The word can also mean 'appeal to', but they did not even render it this way! They intentionally used the phrase 'made this appeal' which is vague and hides who the appeal was made to. They are trying to hide the fact that Jesus was prayed to which would make him God. However, we know it means prayer because they admitted this in their version of Acts ! Also, common sense tells us that it is a prayer since Jesus was nowhere near Stephen during his death and he said 'receive my spirit'.
Nobody other than God himself could ever be prayed to and receive someone's spirit. Notice that the 'him' being referred to here is God. This can be seen in verse 7 since it says "Jesus his Son'. So the 'him' and 'his' are clearly referring to God himself. Now, here is the point. The author says that this is the message that they heard from 'him' God.
So when did they receive this message and who gave them this message? The answer is in John's Gospel. Where did John here this from?
The answer can be found in the same book at John Jesus himself gave them this message that he is the light. In 1 John , it says God gave them this message, but in the book of John, Jesus himself gave them this message.
We know it is Jesus because in verse 7 it says he was pierced. Jesus was the one that was pierced. Even the original Jehovah's Witnesses were taught that the 'Almighty' in this verse was Jesus himself.
See the proof of this below. The Bible is clear that only the one true God may be worshipped. Anything else is a contradiction to plain biblical truth.
Therefore, Jesus must be Jehovah without contradicting scripture. The Watchtower has admitted several times in the past that Jesus was worshipped and can be worshipped. Below are some examples. Watchtower July 15 Salvation Book Watchtower November 15 Watchtower October 15 New World Translation is Biased Anyone who has talked to a Jehovah's Witness will probably know how fearful they are of looking at anything not published by the Watchtower.
They will often repeat the same memorized phrases over and over about this. One of the reasons they often give is that other materials are so biased. Well, the Watchtower publications, including their New World Translation, are extremely biased. Please note, this is just a drop in the bucket compared to everything that could be said about this topic.
There are many other examples not mentioned here. Isaiah - Here it states a child and son that was born. Which is an obvious reference to Jesus Christ.
Then it calls the child 'Mighty God' with a big 'G'. This is yet more proof that Jesus is God, but besides that, you will see an example of their biased Bible. Compare this verse to their reference at John to see the point. Isaiah mentions a child and a son being born which is an obvious reference to Jesus Christ. The main part to notice is how Jesus is called Mighty God. Compare with their reference to John So they go from a big 'G' in Isaiah to a little 'g' to demote Jesus.
They demote Jesus like this since they teach that Jesus is not God Almighty. So they try and make Jesus a separate, smaller or less powerful God. Which contradicts the Bible, but that is another topic. Not only is the Watchtower biased in doing this, but they are inconsistent.
They go from a big 'G' in Isaiah to a little 'g' to demote Jesus since it doesn't agree with their doctrine. Matthew ,11 : Matthew ,11 from their Kingdom Interlinear Translation both have the word 'proskuneo' translated as 'obeisance' since it is in regards to Jesus.
They never translate this word as 'worship' because they are biased against Jesus and believe Jesus is not God. So him being worshipped contradicts their belief and they changed it. However, they do translate this word as 'worship' when the verse is about Satan! See an example below. Matthew : Matthew from their Kingdom Interlinear Translation are examples of when they translate the word 'proskuneo' as 'worship'. This word is used many times in the new testament. They always translate it as 'worship' when the verse is about Jehovah or Satan.
Never do they translate the word as 'worship' when the verse is about Jesus though! Jehovah's Witnesses, how is this not biased??? On the right side, they have it rendered as 'made appeal' though.
It is obvious how they decreased the meaning of the text by going from 'calling upon' to simply 'made appeal'. The word is translated in other verses as 'called on' or 'called out to'. The word can actually mean 'appeal to', but they did not even render it this way! In their newest NWT , they intentionally used the phrase 'made this appeal' which is vague and hides who the appeal was made to. We also know it is a prayer because Jesus was nowhere near Stephen during his death and he said 'receive my spirit'.
The WatchTower Is Deceptive! John - Their Kingdom Interlinear Translation proves that they changed the words of Jesus from saying "I am" to "I have been". It changes the complete thought of the verse and is a deception.
The Jews knew exactly what he was saying see Exodus. They understood he was claiming to be God and thought he was guilty of blasphemy. Stoning was the punishment due for someone guilty of blasphemy. This is why they picked up stones to kill him. Jehovah's Witnesses, why would the people have wanted to kill him simply because he said "I have been"? By the way, their Gray New World Translation does not have any notes about why they changed the 'I am' to 'I have been'.
You would think that they would at least put a footnote in their Bible so the reader would have a better understanding of what happened. Appparently, they think it is more important to place a footnote on the same page that clarifies how "since he began" could also mean "from the beginning" when the verse is about Satan! The Kingdom Interlinear shows how John has been changed from saying 'I am' to 'I have been'.
John : John in their Kingdom Interlinear Translation proves they removed the word 'me'. If they had let the text unaltered, it would have said we can pray to Jesus himself in his name. They changed the text to fit their doctrine since they do not believe Jesus is God. Therefore, he should not be prayed to. They render the word 'Kyrios' as Jehovah instead of 'Lord'. In their Interlinear translation, it shows the same word that they have translated numerous times as 'Lord' in regards to Jesus!
They pick and choose when to translate this word correctly. The reason they have it here as Jehovah and not Lord is because someone could prove Jesus is Jehovah by comparing other scriptures. For example, they have a cross reference to Deuteronomy and Numbers which are about Jehovah. These scriptures are related with Exodus which is also about Jehovah. So if they had translated correctly with Lord Jesus in 1 Corinthians , this would mean Jesus was the one who was tempted and sent the serpents.
Which would mean Jesus is Jehovah God. They have a footnote pointing to Appendix A5 to support their translation. If you go there though, all it talks about is the divine name being restored in the new testament and supporting reasons for why they think the Tetragrammaton was in the original Greek text.
There is no hard evidence, but only speculation. Assuming they are even correct, they say nothing about why they fail to translate 'Kyrios' as Jehovah every time! They explain it as if they diligently translated 'Kyrios' as Jehovah throughout the entire New Testament, which is far from the truth. For example, they say "It uses the name Jehovah a total of times in the Christian Greek Scriptures".
It is not until someone actually researches a little bit that they learn this word occurs in the New Testament more than times though. They translate the word as Jehovah only a small fraction of the time. They translate the word differently depending on how convenient it is for them and whether or not it is in agreement with their false doctrine. Yet, at the end of Appendix A5 they said their translators "have a deep respect for the divine name and a healthy fear of removing anything that appeared in the original text".
This is deceptive wording for 2 reasons. First, if they had a deep respect and healthy fear for the divine name, they would consistently translate 'Kyrios' as Jehovah each and every time. Secondly, they could never be guilty of 'removing' anything since all they provided was speculation and the Tetragrammaton actually does not appear in any of the New Testament manuscripts.
Even if it had originally appeared, they would not be 'removing' anything since this was already done centuries ago. You cannot remove anything that has already been removed.
They use wording like this throughout the Appendix A5 to portray to readers that they are honest and scholarly, but it is all deception once someone does the research. They also conveniently fail to mention that some manuscripts of 1 Corinthians use the word 'Christos' Christ and not 'Kyrios' Lord. Which means in other manuscripts more detail was provided by showing who the Lord is. They not only disregard other manuscripts which detail specifically that this is Christ, but they do not even translate the word as Lord.
It only says "in you". They intentionally changed the thought completely. Saying "in union with you" is completely different than "in you". They dont believe Jesus can live inside anyone so this is why they intentionally made this change. In their version of 2 Peter , they have the word 'the' in the text with no brackets and no footnote explaining why it was added. The reason why they added it is because it makes it look as if their are two separate persons instead of one.
If they had let the text unaltered, it would mean Jesus is our God and Savior. Questions For Jehovah's Witnesses In your Bible, you have a section of John translated as "I have been" when it should have been translated "I am". Why would the Jews have tried stoning him after he simply said "I have been"? Jesus had just got done saying that they were not from God and were also liars, but yet they didn't want to stone him.
Why wasn't it until only after he said "I have been" did they want to stone him? In your Bible, you have a word 'me' removed from John Your Kingdom Interlinear Translation proves that the missing word 'me' must be there. If translated correctly, doesn't this mean that we can pray to Jesus himself?
If old false teachings can simply be explained away by receiving "new light" then isn't this like the WatchTower setting themselves up to never be wrong or accountable? If old false teachings can simply be explained away by receiving "new light", then it is theoretically possible that what you are teaching now may actually be false because in another 5 years or so there can be "new light" again.
Since this is the case, wouldn't Jehovah be responsible for spreading false teaching? If the Holy Spirit is only Jehovah's active force, why does the Holy Spirit speak and use the pronouns "I" and "me" about himself in places like Acts and Hebrews ? Why does your Bible render the word 'proskuneo' as 'obeisance' in regards to Jesus, but as 'worship' in regards to Jehovah and even Satan? Why did the translators of your Bible conveniently fail to insert the word 'Jehovah' in Philippians , Romans , and 1 Corinthians ?
Why does JW artwork consistently show through all the years Jesus with a single nail through his wrist at the time of crucifixion? Scriptures do not say anything about the wrist and John says that more than one nail was used for his hands. Ignoring the direct correlation between God and the Holy Spirit, if the Holy Spirit is not a person and is just God's active force, how can it even be lied to?
How do you explain the direct correlation made between the Holy Spirit and Jehovah made at Acts and Isaiah ? There is even a footnote between the two passages in your own Bible. How do you explain the direct correlation made between the Holy Spirit and Jehovah made at Hebrews and Psalms ? There are multiple footnotes between the two passages in the NWT. How do you explain Rev.
Also, how do you explain the singular words 'his' and 'him' being used when both Jehovah and Jesus are the subject? Why do you make a big deal out of the invented name 'Jehovah' when your own organization admitted several times that nobody actually knows the true name of God?
Since Jehovah's Witnesses believe that you cannot truly know someone without knowing their name, doesn't this mean that you don't know your own God then since nobody knows the true name of God? Since God is all-powerful and all-knowing, why is it that God let his name remain unknown, but we know the name of Jesus? Why is it that we don't know the name of God, but we do know the name of Jesus and it is his name by which we are saved and it is his name that is above EVERY name?
Why is it that you are called 'Jehovah's Witnesses' but Isaiah says God would call his people by a new name single name, not names and that new name was already assigned in Acts ? I left the WatchTower.
Now what? They take Matthew to a whole new level. For example, they make a big deal about such a topic, but then teach such things like Jesus is Michael the Archangel! There is more proof from the Bible that he died on a cross than there is for the torture stake. Some of the proof is listed below. So there was more than 1 nail used for his hands. Hands stretched horizontally to the sides, as would be the case with a cross, would require more than 1 nail.
Notice that it doesn't say 'above his hands' or 'above his arms'. Which would have been necessary if his arms were stretched vertically on a torture stake.
Rather, it says "above his head" which is completely accurate if his arms were stretched horizontally on a cross. John in the NWT also gives us a clue. These clues suggest that the sign was big. It is saying that many people read the sign since it was near the city and because it was in multiple languages. It wasn't some little sign that could only be read by the followers of Jesus, the religious rulers, and soldiers who were standing up close to Jesus.
There would have been no point in making a sign in 3 languages only to have it read by the people who were up close to Jesus. So the sign had to be big enough to accomplish the goal of it being read by people of the city, which it sucessfully did according to the verse. It at least had to be big enough to adequately contain the phrase in 3 languages and not only 1. Since the sign had to be a good size, there probably would not have been enough room on the torture stake at the top above his vertically stretched arms.
Not unless they had a custom-sized torture stake prepared for him in advance. Which would go against what the Bible says since Jesus was taken at night and he was sent to different locations before his death. The Bible implies that the circumstances leading to his death were in haste.
Even the sign had to be prepared on the fly. They were not prepared for all this. So they certainly used the same standard length pieces of wood for Jesus as they did for everyone else. This theory lends evidence that Jesus died on a Cross with arms stretched horizontally. Only arms streteched horizontally would have left plenty of room at the top for the big sign! The Jehovah's Witnesses consistently illustrate in their artwork Jesus having a single nail through his wrists.
Nowhere in scripture is the wrist ever mentioned in regards to the crucifixion of Jesus. Also, notice how small the text in the sign is. A sign of this size would not be easily readable to anyone other than people standing directly in front of Jesus. The sign was probably much bigger to have more visibility.
See point 3 above. The WatchTower consistently illustrate in their artwork Jesus having a nail through his wrists and not his hands. More inaccurate artwork produced by the WatchTower. Notice in both images a single nail through the wrist. And again, the wrist had nothing to do with this.
Also, notice again such a small sign. In reality, someone who would go to the trouble of having a sign made in 3 languages would not make the sign so small so that it would be hard to see. Also, notice on the left image how there is little room left at the top of the torture stake for a sign. More inaccurate artwork showing Jesus having a single nail through his wrists and not his hands.
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